Many equations can be written as $x = g(x)$, and the simplest way to try to solve one is to iterate: $x_{n+1} = g(x_n)$. The mean value inequality tells you when the iterates shrink their gaps, and completeness of the metric space supplies the limit.
Key idea
Why it works
On a closed interval $I$ of $\mathbb{R}$ (which is complete), the mean value theorem gives a practical test: if $g$ maps $I$ into $I$ and $|g'(x)| \le k < 1$ on all of $I$, then $|g(x) - g(y)| = |g'(c)||x - y| \le k|x - y|$.
Worked examples
Worked example: Checking the hypotheses
- $g$ is decreasing there, so $g([0, 1]) = [\cos 1, 1] \approx [0.54, 1] \subseteq [0, 1]$.
- $|g'(x)| = \sin x \le \sin 1 \approx 0.84$ on $[0, 1]$.
Answer: It is a contraction with $k = \sin 1 < 1$. So $\cos x = x$ has exactly one solution there, about $0.739$.
Worked example: The a priori bound
- $x_1 = \frac{16}{3}$, so $d(x_1, x_0) = \frac{13}{3}$, and $k = \frac{1}{3}$.
- The bound is $\frac{(1/3)^{n}}{2/3}\cdot\frac{13}{3} = \frac{13}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{3^{n}} < 0.001$ when $3^{n} > 6500$.
Answer: $n = 8$ (since $3^{8} = 6561$). The fixed point is $\frac{15}{2}$.
Worked example: Close to $1$ is not enough
- $x + \frac{1}{x} = x$ has no solution.
- The ratio $|g'(x)| = 1 - \frac{1}{x^{2}}$ approaches $1$, so no single $k < 1$ works.
Answer: No: the theorem needs one constant $k < 1$.
Common mistake