Putnam 2011
Read the problems at the official link. The 2011 Putnam problems are © the Mathematical Association of America, so we don't reproduce them here. Open the 2011 problems (PDF) from the Putnam Archive.
The topic labels, hints and solutions below are our own, written from scratch: our solutions, not official ones. If you spot a mistake, please use “Report a problem” at the bottom of the page.
A1 Lattice paths: endpoints of spirals with growing steps
- Hint 1. Write the endpoint as alternating sums of the lengths. For which numbers of segments does it land in the first quadrant?
- Hint 2. Two segments reach every point with $y>x\ge1$; six segments reach every point with $x\ge3$, $y\ge4$.
Our solution (not official)
Answer: $10053$
Key idea: only spirals with $n\equiv2\pmod 4$ segments end in the closed first quadrant, and the two shortest such shapes already reach everything that is reachable.
Let the lengths be $\ell_1<\ell_2<\dots<\ell_n$. The endpoint is $$x=\ell_1-\ell_3+\ell_5-\cdots,\qquad y=\ell_2-\ell_4+\ell_6-\cdots,$$ where each sum runs over the odd (or even) indices up to $n$.
Which $n$ can end with $x,y\ge0$. Group the terms in pairs from the end. If the last odd index carries a minus sign ($n\equiv3,0\pmod 4$), then $x<0$. If the last even index carries a minus sign ($n\equiv1\pmod4$), then $y<0$. So $n\equiv2\pmod4$, and then $$x=\ell_1+(\ell_5-\ell_3)+\cdots,\qquad y=\ell_2+(\ell_6-\ell_4)+\cdots .$$ Every bracket is at least $2$. In particular $x\ge1$ and $y\ge2$ always, and for $n\ge6$ we get $x\ge3$, $y\ge4$.
What is reached.
- $n=2$: the endpoint is $(\ell_1,\ell_2)$, which gives exactly the points with $y>x\ge1$.
- $n=6$: every point with $x\ge3$, $y\ge4$. Take $\ell_1=1$, $\ell_2=2$, $\ell_3=3$, $\ell_5=x+2$, $\ell_6=\ell_4+y-2$. If $y>x$, choose $\ell_4=4$. Otherwise choose $\ell_4=x+1$, which works since $y\ge4$. In both cases the lengths increase.
So a point of the grid $0\le x,y\le N$ is an endpoint if and only if $y>x\ge1$, or $x\ge3$ and $y\ge4$.
Counting the others for $N=2011$. The column $x=0$ has $N+1$ points. For $x=1$ the bad points are $y\in\{0,1\}$, and for $x=2$ they are $y\in\{0,1,2\}$. For each $x\ge3$ they are $y\in\{0,1,2,3\}$. Total: $$(N+1)+2+3+4(N-2)=5N-2=10053 .$$
How we checked it: script: enumerated all spirals with up to 10 segments in a 10×10 box; the unreachable set matches the rule (48 points = 5·10−2)
A2 Series: a telescoping sum from a product recurrence
- Hint 1. Let $P_n=a_1a_2\cdots a_n$ and divide the recurrence by $P_n$.
- Hint 2. You should find $\frac{2}{P_n}=\frac{b_{n-1}}{P_{n-1}}-\frac{b_n}{P_n}$.
Our solution (not official)
Answer: $S=\tfrac32$
Key idea: dividing the recurrence by $P_n=a_1\cdots a_n$ makes the series telescope.
Divide $b_n=b_{n-1}a_n-2$ by $P_n$: $$\frac{b_n}{P_n}=\frac{b_{n-1}}{P_{n-1}}-\frac2{P_n}\qquad(n\ge2).$$ Summing from $n=2$ to $N$, and using $b_1/P_1=1$, $$\sum_{n=1}^N\frac1{P_n}=1+\frac12\Big(1-\frac{b_N}{P_N}\Big)=\frac32-\frac{b_N}{2P_N} .$$
Convergence. All terms are positive, so the partial sums increase. They are below $\frac32$ because $b_N,P_N>0$. So the series converges.
The value. A convergent series has terms tending to $0$, so $1/P_N\to0$, that is $P_N\to\infty$. Since $(b_N)$ is bounded, $b_N/P_N\to0$. Therefore $S=\frac32$.
How we checked it: script: built a_n from prescribed bounded sequences b_n (constant 3, and random in [0.1, 5]); partial sums approach 1.5
A3 Limits: ratio of two integrals with a high power
- Hint 1. Integrate the cosine integral by parts once.
- Hint 2. For large $r$, the weight $x^r$ crowds next to $x=\pi/2$.
Our solution (not official)
Answer: $c=-1,\ L=\dfrac{2}{\pi}$
Key idea: one integration by parts turns the ratio into $(r+1)I_r/I_{r+1}$, where $I_r=\int_0^{\pi/2}x^r\sin x\,dx$, and $I_{r+1}/I_r\to\frac\pi2$.
Let $I_r=\int_0^{\pi/2}x^r\sin x\,dx$. Integrating by parts (the boundary term vanishes because $\cos\frac\pi2=0$), $$\int_0^{\pi/2}x^r\cos x\,dx=\frac{1}{r+1}\int_0^{\pi/2}x^{r+1}\sin x\,dx=\frac{I_{r+1}}{r+1}.$$ So the expression is $r^c\,(r+1)\dfrac{I_r}{I_{r+1}}$.
Claim: $I_{r+1}/I_r\to\frac\pi2$. Since $x\le\frac\pi2$, $I_{r+1}\le\frac\pi2I_r$. For a lower bound fix small $\delta>0$. Split $I_r$ at $\frac\pi2-\delta$. The left part is at most $(\frac\pi2-\delta)^{r+1}$. The full integral is at least $\frac\delta2(\frac\pi2-\frac\delta2)^r\sin(\frac\pi2-\frac\delta2)$, the contribution of the last stretch of length $\delta/2$. The ratio of these two quantities tends to $0$ geometrically. So for large $r$ almost all of $I_r$ comes from $x\ge\frac\pi2-\delta$, where the extra factor $x$ is at least $\frac\pi2-\delta$. Hence $$\liminf\frac{I_{r+1}}{I_r}\ge\frac\pi2-\delta$$ for every $\delta$, and the claim follows.
Therefore the expression behaves like $r^{c}\cdot r\cdot\frac2\pi$. It has a positive finite limit exactly when $c=-1$, and then $L=\frac2\pi$.
How we checked it: script: numerical integration for r = 50, 200, 800 gives ratios 0.662, 0.643, 0.638, approaching 2/π ≈ 0.6366
A4 Linear algebra mod 2: even self products, odd cross products
- Hint 1. For odd $n$, try the matrix with $0$ on the diagonal and $1$ elsewhere.
- Hint 2. Modulo $2$, a row’s dot product with itself equals the sum of its entries. So every row is orthogonal to the all-ones vector.
Our solution (not official)
Answer: Exactly the odd $n$
Key idea: modulo $2$, every row is orthogonal to the all-ones vector, which caps the rank of the Gram matrix at $n-1$; but $J-I$ has full rank when $n$ is even.
Odd $n$ works. Let $M=J-I$ ($0$ on the diagonal, $1$ elsewhere). A row dotted with itself gives $n-1$, which is even. Two different rows share $1$’s in $n-2$ positions, which is odd.
Even $n$ fails. Work modulo $2$ and suppose $M$ exists. Its Gram matrix $MM^T$ is $J-I$ over $\mathbb F_2$. For a $0/1$ vector, $x\cdot x=\sum x_i^2\equiv\sum x_i=x\cdot\mathbf 1$. So every row $r$ has $r\cdot\mathbf1=r\cdot r=0$. All rows lie in the $(n-1)$-dimensional space $\mathbf1^\perp$, so $\operatorname{rank}M\le n-1$ and $\operatorname{rank}(MM^T)\le n-1$.
But for even $n$, $(J-I)^2=J^2-2J+I=nJ-2J+I\equiv I\pmod2$, because $J^2=nJ$. So $J-I$ is invertible over $\mathbb F_2$, with rank $n$. Contradiction.
How we checked it: script: exhaustive search over 0/1 matrices for n ≤ 4 finds examples exactly for n = 1, 3
A5 Calculus: gradients parallel to a fixed field give closeness
- Hint 1. Let $G$ be an antiderivative of $g$. Why is the range of $G$ a bounded interval?
- Hint 2. In the coordinates $s=G(u)$, $t=G(v)$, the function $F$ is constant along lines of slope $1$.
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: after the change of variables $s=G(u)$, $t=G(v)$ with $G'=g$, the function $F$ depends only on $s-t$. Since $G$ has bounded range, two of the $n+1$ points are within $O(1/n)$ in the new coordinate.
The new coordinate. Let $G(x)=\int_0^xg$. Since $g>0$, $G$ is strictly increasing. For $|x|\ge1$, $g(x)\le1/x^2$, so $G$ has finite limits $\alpha<\beta$ at $\mp\infty$. Thus $G$ is a $C^1$ bijection from $\mathbb R$ onto the bounded interval $(\alpha,\beta)$, with inverse $G^{-1}$ also $C^1$.
$F$ in the new coordinates. Let $H(s,t)=F(G^{-1}(s),G^{-1}(t))$ on the square $(\alpha,\beta)^2$. Then $H_s=F_u/g(u)$ and $H_t=F_v/g(v)$. The gradient condition says $(F_u,F_v)=\lambda(g(u),-g(v))$ for some real $\lambda$ (possibly $0$), so $$H_s+H_t=\lambda-\lambda=0 .$$ So $H$ is constant along every segment of slope $1$ inside the square. Also $H(s,s)=F(u,u)=0$.
The estimate. Let $m=\frac{\alpha+\beta}2$ and $\delta=\frac{\beta-\alpha}4$. On the compact square $K=[m-\delta,m+\delta]^2$, $H$ is $C^1$, so $|H_s|\le K_0$ there. Now take $s,t\in(\alpha,\beta)$ with $d=s-t$ and $|d|\le2\delta$. Slide $(s,t)$ along its slope-$1$ line to $(m+\frac d2,m-\frac d2)$. The whole segment stays in the square, because both coordinates stay between the old and new values. Then $$|H(s,t)|=\big|H(m+\tfrac d2,m-\tfrac d2)-H(m-\tfrac d2,m-\tfrac d2)\big|\le K_0|d| .$$
Pigeonhole. Given $x_1,\dots,x_{n+1}$, the values $G(x_i)$ are $n+1$ numbers in an interval of length $\beta-\alpha$. Two of them, say for $i\ne j$, are within $\frac{\beta-\alpha}n\le\frac{\beta-\alpha}{2}=2\delta$, using $n\ge2$. Hence $$|F(x_i,x_j)|=|H(G(x_i),G(x_j))|\le\frac{K_0(\beta-\alpha)}{n},$$ so $C=K_0(\beta-\alpha)$ works. (If two of the $x_i$ are equal, the minimum is $0$.)
How we checked it: proof only; the change of variables was checked on F(u,v)=arctan u − arctan v with g = 1/(1+x²)
A6 Random walk on a finite abelian group: rate of mixing
- Hint 1. Use characters: the Fourier transform turns the $m$-fold product into an $m$-th power.
- Hint 2. Let $b$ be the largest $|\hat\mu(\chi)|$ over nontrivial characters. Why is $0<b<1$?
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: with characters, the sum equals $\frac1n\sum_{\chi\ne1}|\hat\mu(\chi)|^{2m}$; take $b$ to be the largest $|\hat\mu(\chi)|$.
Let $\mu$ be the distribution of one roll: $\mu(g_i)=\frac1k$. Then $g$ has distribution $\mu^{*m}$, the $m$-fold convolution. A character is a homomorphism $\chi:G\to\mathbb C^{\times}$; there are $n$ of them. Define $\hat f(\chi)=\sum_xf(x)\overline{\chi(x)}$. Then convolution becomes multiplication, and Plancherel’s formula says $\sum_x|f(x)|^2=\frac1n\sum_\chi|\hat f(\chi)|^2$.
Apply this to $f=\mu^{*m}-\frac1n$. For the trivial character, $\hat f=1-1=0$. For $\chi\ne1$, the constant contributes nothing, so $\hat f(\chi)=\hat\mu(\chi)^m$. Hence $$\sum_{x\in G}\Big(\Pr(g=x)-\frac1n\Big)^2=\frac1n\sum_{\chi\ne1}|\hat\mu(\chi)|^{2m},\qquad \hat\mu(\chi)=\frac1k\sum_{i=1}^k\overline{\chi(g_i)} .$$
$|\hat\mu(\chi)|<1$ for $\chi\ne1$. It is an average of $k$ complex numbers of modulus $1$. Equality would force all $\chi(g_i)$ to be equal, hence equal to $\chi(e)=1$. Then $\chi$ is trivial on a generating set, so $\chi=1$.
Some $\hat\mu(\chi)\ne0$ with $\chi\ne1$. Plancherel gives $\sum_\chi|\hat\mu(\chi)|^2=n\sum_x\mu(x)^2=\frac nk>1$, since the generators form a proper subset, so $k<n$. The trivial character contributes only $1$.
So $b=\max_{\chi\ne1}|\hat\mu(\chi)|$ lies in $(0,1)$. Dividing by $b^{2m}$, $$\frac1{b^{2m}}\sum_x\Big(\Pr(g=x)-\frac1n\Big)^2=\frac1n\sum_{\chi\ne1}\Big(\frac{|\hat\mu(\chi)|}{b}\Big)^{2m}\longrightarrow\frac{\#\{\chi:|\hat\mu(\chi)|=b\}}{n},$$ which is positive and finite.
How we checked it: script: exact distributions on Z/6 and Z/2×Z/4 with sample generator sets; at m = 20 the scaled sums equal (number of maximal characters)/n to 9 digits
B1 Approximation: differences of square roots in a window
- Hint 1. Choose $m=k^2a$ and $n=h^2b$ so that $h\sqrt m-k\sqrt n=hk(\sqrt a-\sqrt b)$.
- Hint 2. The gaps $\sqrt{N^2+j+1}-\sqrt{N^2+j}$ are all smaller than $\frac1{2N}$.
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: with $m=k^2(N^2+j)$ and $n=h^2N^2$ the difference is $hk(\sqrt{N^2+j}-N)$, which climbs from $0$ in steps smaller than $\frac{1}{2N}$.
Let $\eta=\frac{\varepsilon}{hk}$ and choose an integer $N$ with $\frac1{2N}<\eta$. Consider $$d_j=\sqrt{N^2+j}-N,\qquad j=0,1,2,\dots$$ Then $d_0=0$, $d_j\to\infty$, and each step is small: $$d_{j+1}-d_j=\frac1{\sqrt{N^2+j+1}+\sqrt{N^2+j}}<\frac1{2N}<\eta .$$ Let $j$ be the first index with $d_j>\eta$. Then $j\ge1$ and $d_j<d_{j-1}+\eta\le2\eta$.
Now set $m=k^2(N^2+j)$ and $n=h^2N^2$. Then $$h\sqrt m-k\sqrt n=hk\big(\sqrt{N^2+j}-N\big)=hk\,d_j\in(\varepsilon,2\varepsilon).$$
How we checked it: script: 500 random cases with h,k ≤ 20 and ε down to 1e-6, in 60-digit arithmetic; the construction always lands in (ε, 2ε)
B2 Number theory: prime quadratics with a rational root
- Hint 1. A rational root means $px^2+qx+r$ factors over the integers. List the possible factorizations.
- Hint 2. The middle coefficient is $p+r$ or $pr+1$; for it to be prime, one of $p,r$ must be $2$.
Our solution (not official)
Answer: $2$ and $5$
Key idea: a rational root forces $q=p+r$ or $q=pr+1$, so one of $p,r$ is $2$; an odd prime then appears at most twice for each of four simple conditions.
The triples. If the quadratic has a rational root, it factors as $(ax+b)(cx+d)$ over the integers (Gauss’s lemma), with $a,c>0$. Then $bd=r>0$ and $ad+bc=q>0$, so $b,d>0$. Since $p$ and $r$ are prime, $\{a,c\}=\{1,p\}$ and $\{b,d\}=\{1,r\}$, and so $$q=p+r\qquad\text{or}\qquad q=pr+1 .$$ In either case $q$ is an odd prime only if one of $p,r$ equals $2$. (If $q=2$, then $p+r=2$ or $pr=1$, both impossible.) So the elements of $S$ are $$(2,\,\ell+2,\,\ell),\ (\ell,\,\ell+2,\,2)\ \text{ with }\ell+2\text{ prime};\qquad(2,\,2\ell+1,\,\ell),\ (\ell,\,2\ell+1,\,2)\ \text{ with }2\ell+1\text{ prime},$$ for primes $\ell$.
An odd prime $\ell$. It can appear in two triples as an end entry if $\ell+2$ is prime, and two more if $2\ell+1$ is prime. As the middle entry, it appears in two triples if $\ell-2$ is prime, and two more if $\frac{\ell-1}2$ is prime. These triples are all different, except that for $\ell=5$ the last pair collapses to the single triple $(2,5,2)$.
For $\ell\ne5$ the triples come in pairs, so $7$ or more requires all four conditions. In particular $\ell-2,\ell,\ell+2$ would all be prime. One of three numbers spaced by $2$ is divisible by $3$, so it must equal $3$, which forces $\ell=5$, a contradiction. For $\ell=5$ all four conditions hold ($3$, $7$, $11$ and $2$ are prime), giving $2+2+2+1=7$ triples: $$(2,7,5),\ (5,7,2),\ (2,11,5),\ (5,11,2),\ (2,5,3),\ (3,5,2),\ (2,5,2).$$
The prime $2$. It appears at least $7$ times, for example in $$(2,5,3),\ (3,5,2),\ (2,7,5),\ (5,7,2),\ (2,7,3),\ (3,7,2),\ (2,13,11).$$ The answer is $2$ and $5$.
How we checked it: script: listed all prime triples with entries below 2000 having a rational root; only 2 and 5 occur 7+ times (5 exactly 7 times)
B3 Calculus: differentiability from a product and a quotient
- Hint 1. Treat the cases $f(0)\ne0$ and $f(0)=0$ separately.
- Hint 2. If $f(0)\ne0$, then $g^2=(fg)/(f/g)$ is differentiable at $0$.
Our solution (not official)
Answer: Yes
Key idea: if $f(0)\ne0$, recover $g$ from $g^2=\frac{fg}{f/g}$; if $f(0)=0$, write $\frac{f(x)}x=\frac{(f/g)(x)}{x}\cdot g(x)$.
Let $u=fg$ and $w=f/g$, both differentiable at $0$.
Case $f(0)\ne0$. Then $w(0)\ne0$, so $g^2=u/w$ is differentiable at $0$, and $g(0)^2>0$. Because $g$ is continuous and nonzero at $0$, it keeps one sign near $0$. So $g=\pm\sqrt{g^2}$ near $0$, and the square root of a positive differentiable function is differentiable. Hence $g$ is differentiable at $0$, and so is $f=u/g$.
Case $f(0)=0$. Then $w(0)=0$ and $$\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x}=\frac{w(x)}{x}\cdot g(x)\longrightarrow w'(0)\,g(0),$$ using continuity of $g$ at $0$. So $f'(0)$ exists.
Either way $f$ is differentiable at $0$.
How we checked it: proof only
B4 Tournaments: a Hermitian determinant divisible by a power of two
- Hint 1. Encode one game by a vector with entry $1$ for a winner and $-i$ for a loser. What is $vv^*$?
- Hint 2. $T+iW=AA^*$ for a square matrix $A$ with entries $1$ and $-i$. Subtract one row from the others.
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: each game adds a rank-one matrix $vv^*$ with $v$ made of $1$’s and $-i$’s, so $T+iW=AA^*$; row reduction pulls out $(1+i)^{2010}$ from $\det A$.
One game. Let $v_h=1$ if player $h$ won and $v_h=-i$ if $h$ lost. Then $(vv^*)_{hk}=v_h\overline{v_k}$ is:
- $1\cdot1=1$ or $(-i)(i)=1$ when $h$ and $k$ tied;
- $1\cdot i=i$ when $h$ won and $k$ lost;
- $(-i)\cdot1=-i$ when $h$ lost and $k$ won.
This is exactly the change in $T+iW$ from that game. So with $A$ the $2011\times2011$ matrix whose columns are the vectors $v$ of the $2011$ games, $$T+iW=AA^* ,\qquad \det(T+iW)=|\det A|^2 .$$ It is a nonnegative real number. Since $\det A$ is in $\mathbb Z[i]$, $|\det A|^2$ is a nonnegative integer.
The power of $2$. Subtract the first row of $A$ from each other row; this keeps the determinant. Every entry of those $2010$ rows becomes $0$ or $\pm(1+i)$, since $1-(-i)=1+i$. So $(1+i)$ factors out of each of them: $$\det A=(1+i)^{2010}\,z,\qquad z\in\mathbb Z[i].$$ Then $\det(T+iW)=|1+i|^{4020}|z|^2=2^{2010}|z|^2$, which is divisible by $2^{2010}$.
How we checked it: script: random tournaments with 5 to 9 players (as many games as players); det(T+iW) was always a nonnegative integer divisible by 2^(N−1)
B5 Inequalities: Cauchy kernels force points to spread out
- Hint 1. Expand the square and integrate each product. Two Cauchy kernels give $\int\frac{dx}{(1+(x-a)^2)(1+(x-b)^2)}=\frac{2\pi}{4+(a-b)^2}$.
- Hint 2. Apply Cauchy–Schwarz to the $n^2$ numbers $4+(a_i-a_j)^2$.
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: the integral is $\sum_{i,j}\frac{2\pi}{4+(a_i-a_j)^2}$, and Cauchy–Schwarz turns a small sum of reciprocals into a large sum.
The integral. For real $a,b$ with $d=a-b$, $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{dx}{(1+(x-a)^2)(1+(x-b)^2)}=\frac{2\pi}{4+d^2}.$$ One way to see it: $\frac1{\pi(1+x^2)}$ is the Cauchy density with scale $1$, and the convolution of two of them is the Cauchy density with scale $2$, namely $\frac{2}{\pi(4+d^2)}$. (A residue computation gives the same.) Expanding the square, the hypothesis becomes $$\sum_{i,j=1}^n\frac{2\pi}{4+(a_i-a_j)^2}\le An .$$
Cauchy–Schwarz. With $t_{ij}=4+(a_i-a_j)^2$, $$\Big(\sum_{i,j}t_{ij}\Big)\Big(\sum_{i,j}\frac1{t_{ij}}\Big)\ge(n^2)^2 ,\qquad\text{so}\qquad\sum_{i,j}t_{ij}\ge\frac{n^4}{An/(2\pi)}=\frac{2\pi n^3}{A}.$$ Finally $1+(a_i-a_j)^2\ge\frac14t_{ij}$, so $$\sum_{i,j}\big(1+(a_i-a_j)^2\big)\ge\frac{\pi}{2A}\,n^3 ,$$ and $B=\frac{\pi}{2A}$ works.
How we checked it: script: numerical integration of the two-kernel product for several (a,b) matches 2π/(4+d²) to 15 digits