Putnam 2000
Read the problems at the official link. The 2000 Putnam problems are Β© the Mathematical Association of America, so we don't reproduce them here. Open the 2000 problems (PDF) from the Putnam Archive.
The topic labels, hints and solutions below are our own, written from scratch: our solutions, not official ones. If you spot a mistake, please use βReport a problemβ at the bottom of the page.
A1 Series: possible sums of squares of a positive series
- Hint 1. Compare $\big(\sum x_j\big)^2$ with $\sum x_j^2$. What do the cross terms do?
- Hint 2. Try a geometric series $x_j = c\,r^j$ and let $r$ run from $0$ to $1$.
Our solution (not official)
Answer: every value in the open interval $(0, A^2)$
Key idea: squaring the sum adds positive cross terms, and geometric series fill in every value below the bound.
Upper and lower bounds. Every $x_j$ is positive, so the sum of squares is positive. Squaring the series (all terms positive, so we may rearrange freely), $$A^2=\Big(\sum_j x_j\Big)^2=\sum_j x_j^2+2\sum_{i<j}x_ix_j>\sum_j x_j^2,$$ because there are infinitely many positive terms and so at least one positive cross term. Hence every possible value lies in $(0,A^2)$.
Every value occurs. Take $x_j=A(1-r)r^j$ with $0<r<1$. Then $\sum x_j=A$ and $$\sum_j x_j^2=A^2(1-r)^2\sum_j r^{2j}=A^2\frac{(1-r)^2}{1-r^2}=A^2\,\frac{1-r}{1+r}.$$ As $r$ goes from $0$ to $1$, the factor $\frac{1-r}{1+r}$ decreases continuously from $1$ to $0$. So it takes every value strictly between, and every number in $(0,A^2)$ is a possible sum.
How we checked it: algebra: the geometric family was checked symbolically; the bound is the cross-term identity
A2 Number theory: three consecutive sums of two squares
- Hint 1. Make the middle number a perfect square. Then the number above it is a square plus $1$.
- Hint 2. You need $a^2-1=(a-1)(a+1)$ to be a sum of two squares. Try $a=2k^2+1$.
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: put a perfect square in the middle; then only the number just below it needs work, and a good choice of the square makes it factor nicely.
Take $a=2k^2+1$ for an integer $k\ge1$ and look at the three numbers $a^2-1,\ a^2,\ a^2+1$.
- $a^2 = a^2+0^2$.
- $a^2+1 = a^2+1^2$.
- $a^2-1=(a-1)(a+1)=2k^2\,(2k^2+2)=4k^2(k^2+1)=(2k^2)^2+(2k)^2$.
So $n=a^2-1=4k^4+4k^2$ works, and different $k$ give different $n$. There are infinitely many such $n$. (For $k=1$: $8=2^2+2^2$, $9=3^2+0^2$, $10=3^2+1^2$.)
How we checked it: script: the identity was checked for k = 1 to 49
A3 Geometry: octagon from an inscribed square and rectangle
- Hint 1. Cut the octagon into eight triangles from the center. The area of each is $\tfrac12R^2\sin(\text{central angle})$.
- Hint 2. An inscribed rectangle has its diagonals as diameters. Its area fixes one relation between the two angles that place its vertices.
Our solution (not official)
Answer: $3\sqrt5$
Key idea: measure everything by central angles. The square fixes the radius, the rectangle fixes the difference of two angles, and the area is a sum of sines.
The square has area $5$, so its diagonal is $\sqrt{10}$ and the circle has radius $R$ with $R^2=\tfrac52$. Put the square’s vertices at angles $0^\circ,90^\circ,180^\circ,270^\circ$.
The rectangle is inscribed, so its diagonals are diameters: opposite vertices are antipodal. Say the rectangle’s vertex in the first quarter-arc is at angle $\alpha$, and the one in the second quarter-arc is at $90^\circ+\beta$, with $0<\alpha,\beta<90^\circ$. The antipodes are at $180^\circ+\alpha$ and $270^\circ+\beta$.
Area of the octagon. From the center the octagon splits into eight triangles. Each quarter-arc is cut into two pieces, $\alpha$ and $90^\circ-\alpha$ (twice) or $\beta$ and $90^\circ-\beta$ (twice). Using $\tfrac12R^2\sin\theta$ for each triangle, $$\text{area}=R^2\big(\sin\alpha+\cos\alpha+\sin\beta+\cos\beta\big).$$
The rectangle’s area. Its two sides subtend central angles $\gamma=90^\circ+\beta-\alpha$ and $180^\circ-\gamma$, so its area is $(2R\sin\tfrac\gamma2)(2R\cos\tfrac\gamma2)=2R^2\sin\gamma=5\cos(\beta-\alpha)$. This equals $4$, so $\cos(\alpha-\beta)=\tfrac45$.
Maximize. Using $\sin\theta+\cos\theta=\sqrt2\sin(\theta+45^\circ)$ and a sum-to-product step, $$\sin\alpha+\cos\alpha+\sin\beta+\cos\beta=2\sqrt2\,\sin\Big(\frac{\alpha+\beta}2+45^\circ\Big)\cos\frac{\alpha-\beta}2.$$ The cosine factor is fixed: $\cos\frac{\alpha-\beta}2=\sqrt{\frac{1+4/5}{2}}=\frac{3}{\sqrt{10}}$. The sine factor is at most $1$, with equality when $\alpha+\beta=90^\circ$. Together with $\alpha-\beta=\arccos\tfrac45\approx36.9^\circ$ this gives $\alpha\approx63.4^\circ,\ \beta\approx26.6^\circ$, both allowed. So $$\text{max area}=\frac52\cdot2\sqrt2\cdot\frac3{\sqrt{10}}=\frac{15}{\sqrt5}=3\sqrt5 .$$
How we checked it: script: grid search over the two angles with the rectangle constraint gives 6.7076..., matching 3β5 = 6.7082
A4 Analysis: convergence of an oscillating improper integral
- Hint 1. Write $\sin x\sin x^2=\frac{\sin x}{2x}\cdot 2x\sin x^2$ and integrate by parts.
- Hint 2. A leftover term has $\cos x\cos x^2$. Turn it into $\cos(x^2\pm x)$ and integrate by parts once more.
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: each integration by parts against a fast oscillation gains a factor $1/x$; two rounds leave only absolutely convergent pieces.
The integral over $[0,1]$ is a proper integral, so we study $\int_1^B$ as $B\to\infty$.
First step. Since $\frac{d}{dx}(-\cos x^2)=2x\sin x^2$, $$\int_1^B \sin x\sin x^2\,dx=\Big[-\frac{\sin x}{2x}\cos x^2\Big]_1^B+\int_1^B \cos x^2\Big(\frac{\cos x}{2x}-\frac{\sin x}{2x^2}\Big)dx .$$ The boundary term has a limit (it is $O(1/B)$ at the top). The piece with $\frac{\sin x}{2x^2}$ converges absolutely, because $|\cdot|\le\frac1{2x^2}$. It remains to handle $$\int_1^B\frac{\cos x\cos x^2}{x}\,dx=\frac12\int_1^B\frac{\cos(x^2+x)}{x}\,dx+\frac12\int_1^B\frac{\cos(x^2-x)}{x}\,dx .$$
Second step. Take $\phi(x)=x^2+x$, so $\phi'(x)=2x+1>0$ on $[1,\infty)$. Then $$\int_1^B\frac{\cos\phi}{x}\,dx=\int_1^B\frac{\phi'\cos\phi}{x(2x+1)}\,dx=\Big[\frac{\sin\phi}{x(2x+1)}\Big]_1^B+\int_1^B\sin\phi\;\frac{4x+1}{x^2(2x+1)^2}\,dx .$$ The boundary term tends to a limit, and the last integrand is at most $\frac{5x}{4x^4}$ in size, which is integrable. The same works for $\phi(x)=x^2-x$, with $\phi'=2x-1\ge1$ on $[1,\infty)$ and the weight $\frac1{x(2x-1)}$.
Every piece has a finite limit as $B\to\infty$, so the improper integral converges. (Numerically it is about $0.49$.)
How we checked it: script: numerical integration up to B = 50, 100, 200 settles near 0.49
A5 Geometry: three lattice points on a circle
- Hint 1. A triangle with integer vertices that is not flat has area at least $\tfrac12$.
- Hint 2. For a triangle inscribed in a circle of radius $r$, area $=\dfrac{abc}{4r}$.
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: the triangle’s area is at least $\tfrac12$ (lattice points) and equals $\frac{abc}{4r}$ (circumradius formula), so the sides cannot all be short.
Three distinct points on a circle are never collinear, so they form a real triangle. Let its sides be $a,b,c$ and its area $K$.
- With integer coordinates, the shoelace formula gives $2K$ as the absolute value of an integer. It is not zero, so $K\ge\tfrac12$.
- The circle is the triangle’s circumcircle, so $K=\dfrac{abc}{4r}$.
Hence $abc=4rK\ge 2r$. The largest side then satisfies $$\max(a,b,c)\ge (abc)^{1/3}\ge(2r)^{1/3}>r^{1/3}.$$ So two of the points are at distance at least $r^{1/3}$ (in fact more than that).
How we checked it: proof only; the area and circumradius formulas are standard
A6 Number theory: iterating an integer polynomial back to zero
- Hint 1. For an integer polynomial, $u-v$ divides $f(u)-f(v)$. Apply it to consecutive terms.
- Hint 2. If the sequence returns to $0$, it is periodic, and the consecutive differences divide each other around a cycle.
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: consecutive differences divide each other, so around a cycle they all have the same size; then either they are all equal (impossible) or two in a row cancel.
Suppose $a_m=0$ with $m\ge1$. Since $a_{n+1}$ depends only on $a_n$, the sequence repeats: $a_{n+m}=a_n$ for all $n\ge0$.
Let $d_n=a_{n+1}-a_n$. For an integer polynomial, $u-v$ divides $f(u)-f(v)$ (each $u^k-v^k$ is a multiple of $u-v$). With $u=a_{n+1}$, $v=a_n$ this gives $d_n\mid d_{n+1}$. Around the cycle, $$d_0\mid d_1\mid\cdots\mid d_{m}=d_0 .$$
- If $d_0=0$, then $a_1=a_0=0$ and we are done.
- Otherwise no $d_n$ is zero, and divisibility around a cycle forces $|d_0|=|d_1|=\cdots=|d_{m-1}|$. If all of them were equal, then $a_m=a_0+m\,d_0\ne0$, a contradiction. So for some $n$ we have $d_{n+1}=-d_n$, which means $a_{n+2}=a_n$.
From $a_{n+2}=a_n$ the sequence is periodic with period $2$ from index $n$ on. Pick a multiple $k$ of $m$ with $k\ge n$. Then $a_k=a_0=0$ and $a_2=a_{k+2}=a_k=0$. So $a_2=0$.
How we checked it: script: all polynomials with coefficients in {-2,...,2} and degree β€ 3, 12 iterations: no counterexample
B1 Combinatorics: parity of linear forms, averaging argument
- Hint 1. Only parities matter. Work with vectors in $\{0,1\}^3$ and arithmetic mod $2$.
- Hint 2. Pick $(r,s,t)$ at random among the seven nonzero parity vectors. How often is one fixed form odd?
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: average over the seven nonzero choices of $(r,s,t)$ mod $2$; each triple $(a_j,b_j,c_j)$ makes the sum odd for exactly four of them.
Only parities matter, so think of $v_j=(a_j,b_j,c_j)$ and $w=(r,s,t)$ as vectors over the field with two elements. The condition says $v_j\ne0$.
Fix a nonzero $v$. The map $w\mapsto v\cdot w$ is a nonzero linear map onto $\{0,1\}$, so it takes the value $1$ on exactly half of the $8$ vectors $w$, that is, on $4$ of them. None of these is $w=0$. So among the $7$ nonzero $w$, exactly $4$ make $v\cdot w$ odd.
Now choose $w$ uniformly among the $7$ nonzero vectors. Each $j$ is “odd” with probability $\tfrac47$, so the expected number of good $j$ is $\tfrac{4N}7$. Some choice does at least as well as the average. Take $r,s,t$ to be that choice (as integers $0$ or $1$).
How we checked it: script: 200 random instances with N β€ 9; the best of the 8 choices always reached 4N/7
B2 Number theory: a gcd multiple of a binomial coefficient
- Hint 1. Write $\gcd(m,n)=xm+yn$ with integers $x,y$.
- Hint 2. What is $\frac mn\binom nm$?
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: write the gcd as a combination of $m$ and $n$; each part gives an integer.
By BΓ©zout there are integers $x,y$ with $\gcd(m,n)=xm+yn$. Then $$\frac{\gcd(m,n)}{n}\binom nm=x\cdot\frac mn\binom nm+y\binom nm .$$ The second term is an integer. For the first, $\frac mn\binom nm=\frac mn\cdot\frac{n!}{m!(n-m)!}=\frac{(n-1)!}{(m-1)!(n-m)!}=\binom{n-1}{m-1}$, an integer. So the whole expression is an integer.
How we checked it: script: checked for all 1 β€ m β€ n < 40
B3 Analysis: zeros of derivatives of a trigonometric polynomial
- Hint 1. Think of $f$ on a circle (period $1$). Rolle’s theorem then works between every pair of neighboring zeros, including the wrap-around.
- Hint 2. For the limit, divide the $k$-th derivative by $(2\pi N)^k a_N$. Which term survives?
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: on the circle, Rolle never loses zeros, and a trigonometric polynomial of degree $N$ has at most $2N$ zeros; for large $k$ the top frequency dominates and forces $2N$ sign changes.
Each derivative $f^{(k)}$ is again a sum of $\sin$ and $\cos$ of $2\pi jt$ for $1\le j\le N$, with the frequency-$N$ part nonzero. So it is not identically zero. It has period $1$, so we view it on a circle of length $1$.
At most $2N$ zeros. Put $z=e^{2\pi i t}$. A sum $g(t)=\sum_{1\le|j|\le N}c_je^{2\pi ijt}$ equals $z^{-N}Q(z)$ with $Q$ a polynomial of degree at most $2N$, not zero. The map $t\mapsto z$ is a local analytic bijection with nonzero derivative, so zeros of $g$ in $[0,1)$, with multiplicity, match zeros of $Q$ on the unit circle, with multiplicity. Hence $N_k\le2N$ for every $k$.
$N_k\le N_{k+1}$. Let $g=f^{(k)}$ have distinct zeros $t_1<\cdots<t_r$ on the circle, with multiplicities $m_1,\dots,m_r$, so $N_k=\sum m_i$. (If $r=0$ there is nothing to prove.) A zero of multiplicity $m$ of $g$ is a zero of multiplicity $m-1$ of $g'$. Also, $g$ vanishes at both ends of each of the $r$ arcs between neighboring zeros (going around the circle; with $r=1$ the one arc runs from $t_1$ to $t_1+1$). By Rolle, $g'$ has a zero inside each arc. These are new zeros, so $$N_{k+1}\ge\sum_i(m_i-1)+r=N_k .$$
The limit is $2N$. Write $f(t)=\sum_j a_j\sin(2\pi jt)$. Then $$\frac{f^{(k)}(t)}{(2\pi N)^ka_N}=\sin\Big(2\pi Nt+\frac{k\pi}2\Big)+\sum_{j<N}\frac{a_j}{a_N}\Big(\frac jN\Big)^k\sin\Big(2\pi jt+\frac{k\pi}2\Big).$$ The sum is at most $\sum_{j<N}\big|\frac{a_j}{a_N}\big|\big(\frac{N-1}{N}\big)^k$ in size, which is below $1$ for large $k$. The main term equals $+1$ and $-1$ alternately at $2N$ equally spaced points around the circle. At those points the whole expression has the same sign as the main term, so it changes sign $2N$ times around the circle and has at least $2N$ zeros. With the upper bound, $N_k=2N$ for all large $k$. Since the sequence is nondecreasing and bounded by $2N$, its limit is $2N$.
How we checked it: proof only; the argument uses Rolle on the circle and the bound for polynomials
B4 Functional equation: doubling the angle forces zero
- Hint 1. Put $x=\cos t$. Then $2x^2-1=\cos2t$, and $2x$ looks like a ratio of sines.
- Hint 2. Show that $g(t)=f(\cos t)/\sin t$ satisfies $g(2t)=g(t)$ and has period $\pi$. Then use an orbit of doubling that is dense.
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: with $x=\cos t$ the equation says $f(\cos t)/\sin t$ is unchanged when $t$ doubles. Doubling has dense orbits, so that ratio is constant, and a symmetry makes the constant $0$.
Easy facts. At $x=1$: $f(1)=2f(1)$, so $f(1)=0$. Replacing $x$ by $-x$ gives $2xf(x)=-2xf(-x)$, so $f(-x)=-f(x)$ for $x\ne0$, and by continuity $f$ is odd. In particular $f(-1)=0$.
The ratio. For $t$ not a multiple of $\pi$, let $g(t)=\dfrac{f(\cos t)}{\sin t}$. It is continuous there. Using $\cos2t=2\cos^2t-1$ and $\sin 2t=2\sin t\cos t$, $$g(2t)=\frac{f(\cos2t)}{\sin2t}=\frac{2\cos t\,f(\cos t)}{2\sin t\cos t}=g(t)\qquad(\text{when }\cos t\ne0,\ \sin t\ne 0).$$ If $\cos t=0$, then $\cos 2t=-1$ and $\sin2t=0$, so $2t$ is outside the domain; we simply never use those $t$. Also, since $f$ is odd, $g(t+\pi)=\frac{f(-\cos t)}{-\sin t}=g(t)$, and $g(-t)=-g(t)$.
Constant along a dense orbit. Measure $t$ in units of $\pi$: write $t=\pi s$ with $s\in(0,1)$. Doubling $t$ modulo $\pi$ is the binary shift $s\mapsto 2s \bmod 1$. Pick $s_0$ whose binary expansion contains every finite block of digits (for example, list all blocks one after another). Then $s_0$ is not a dyadic rational, so its orbit never hits $0$ or $\tfrac12$ (where $\sin t$ or $\cos t$ would vanish), and $g(\pi s_0)=g(2\pi s_0)=\cdots$. The orbit comes arbitrarily close to every $s\in(0,1)$, because the shift brings any chosen block of digits to the front. By continuity, $g$ equals the constant $c=g(\pi s_0)$ on all of $(0,\pi)$.
The constant is zero. For $0<t<\pi$, $g(-t)=-c$, but also $g(-t)=g(\pi-t)=c$ by the period $\pi$. So $c=0$, which means $f(\cos t)=0$ for all $0<t<\pi$, that is, $f=0$ on $(-1,1)$. Together with $f(\pm1)=0$, $f$ vanishes on $[-1,1]$.
How we checked it: proof only
B5 Sets as polynomials mod 2: Pascal’s rule
- Hint 1. Encode a set $S$ as the polynomial $\sum_{a\in S}x^a$ with coefficients mod $2$. What does one step do to it?
- Hint 2. Over the field with two elements, $(1+x)^{2^k}=1+x^{2^k}$.
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: the rule is multiplication by $1+x$ mod $2$, and $(1+x)^{2^k}=1+x^{2^k}$ mod $2$.
Encode a finite set $S$ of positive integers as $P_S(x)=\sum_{a\in S}x^a$, a polynomial with coefficients in the field $\mathbb F_2$. The coefficient of $x^a$ in $(1+x)P_{S_n}(x)$ is $[a\in S_n]+[a-1\in S_n]$ mod $2$, which is $1$ exactly when one of $a$, $a-1$ is in $S_n$. That is the rule, so $$P_{S_{n+1}}=(1+x)P_{S_n},\qquad P_{S_n}=(1+x)^nP_{S_0}.$$ (The new sets contain only positive integers, since $a=0$ would need $0$ or $-1$ in $S_n$.)
Over $\mathbb F_2$, squaring is additive: $(u+v)^2=u^2+v^2$. Repeating it, $(1+x)^{2^k}=1+x^{2^k}$. So for $N=2^k$, $$P_{S_N}=(1+x^N)P_{S_0}=P_{S_0}+x^NP_{S_0}.$$ Choose $k$ so large that $N>\max S_0$. Then the exponents in $P_{S_0}$ and in $x^NP_{S_0}$ do not overlap, nothing cancels, and the right side encodes $S_0\cup\{N+a:a\in S_0\}$. Every large power of $2$ works, so there are infinitely many such $N$.
How we checked it: script: for S0 = {1,3,4} the matching N up to 70 are 4, 8, 16, 32, 64
B6 Combinatorics: equilateral triangles among cube vertices
- Hint 1. Three vertices that pairwise differ in exactly two coordinates form an equilateral triangle.
- Hint 2. The neighbors of any vertex of the cube (one coordinate flipped) pairwise differ in exactly two coordinates. Count pairs (vertex, neighbor in $B$).
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: the neighbors of a single cube vertex are pairwise the same distance apart. A counting argument gives a vertex with three neighbors in $B$.
Call two points of $\{\pm1\}^n$ neighbors if they differ in exactly one coordinate. If $c$ is any point (in $B$ or not) and $c^{(i)}$ is $c$ with coordinate $i$ flipped, then for $i\ne j$ the points $c^{(i)}$ and $c^{(j)}$ differ in exactly coordinates $i$ and $j$, so their distance is $\sqrt{2^2+2^2}=2\sqrt2$. Hence any three neighbors of one point form an equilateral triangle.
Now count pairs $(c,b)$ with $b\in B$ and $c$ a neighbor of $b$. Each $b$ has $n$ neighbors, so there are $n|B|>2^{n+1}$ pairs. There are $2^n$ possible $c$, so on average a point $c$ has more than $2$ neighbors in $B$. Some $c$ therefore has at least $3$ neighbors in $B$, and those three points are the vertices of an equilateral triangle.
How we checked it: proof only; the distance claim is a direct computation