IMO 2009
Read the problems at the official link. The 2009 IMO problems are © the International Mathematical Olympiad, so we don't reproduce them here. Open the 2009 problems (PDF) from the IMO's official site.
The topic labels, hints and solutions below are our own, written from scratch: our solutions, not official ones. If you spot a mistake, please use “Report a problem” at the bottom of the page.
P1 A chain of divisibilities that can’t close up
- Hint 1. The condition says $a_ia_{i+1}\equiv a_i\pmod n$. Suppose the chain also closes: $a_ka_1\equiv a_k$.
- Hint 2. Then multiply your way around the whole cycle starting from any $a_i$. What does every $a_i$ become congruent to?
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: if the chain closed into a cycle, every term would be congruent to the product of all the terms. Then two different terms would be congruent mod $n$, which is impossible in $\{1,\dots,n\}$.
Suppose $n\mid a_k(a_1-1)$ as well. Then, with indices read cyclically ($a_{k+1}=a_1$), $$a_ja_{j+1}\equiv a_j\pmod n\qquad\text{for every }j .$$ Start from any $a_i$ and use this repeatedly: $$a_i\equiv a_ia_{i+1}\equiv a_ia_{i+1}a_{i+2}\equiv\dots\equiv a_ia_{i+1}\cdots a_{i+k-1}=a_1a_2\cdots a_k\pmod n .$$ Each step multiplies the relation $a_j\equiv a_ja_{j+1}$ by the product of the earlier terms. So every $a_i$ is congruent to the same product. In particular $a_1\equiv a_2\pmod n$, and since both lie in $\{1,\dots,n\}$, $a_1=a_2$. That contradicts that the numbers are distinct.
How we checked it: script: exhaustive search for n ≤ 12 and chains of length ≤ 4 finds no closed chain
P2 A midpoint circle tangent to a segment gives equal distances
- Hint 1. $MK$ is parallel to $AB$ and half of $BQ$; $ML$ is parallel to $AC$ and half of $CP$.
- Hint 2. Tangency at $M$ makes triangle $MKL$ similar to triangle $APQ$. Turn the ratio into $AP\cdot PC=AQ\cdot QB$, which is a statement about powers.
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: tangency gives a similarity between the midpoint triangle and $APQ$. The resulting ratio says $P$ and $Q$ have the same power with respect to the circumcircle.
Midlines. In triangle $BPQ$, $K$ and $M$ are midpoints of $BP$ and $PQ$, so $MK\parallel BQ$ (which is line $AB$) and $MK=\tfrac12BQ$. In triangle $CQP$, $ML\parallel CP$ (line $AC$) and $ML=\tfrac12CP$.
Similar triangles. $PQ$ is tangent to $\Gamma$ at $M$. By the tangent–chord angle, $\angle(PQ,MK)=\angle MLK$. Since $MK\parallel AQ$, $\angle(PQ,MK)=\angle AQP$. So $\angle MLK=\angle AQP$. In the same way $\angle MKL=\angle APQ$. Hence triangles $MKL$ and $APQ$ are similar, with $M\leftrightarrow A$, $K\leftrightarrow P$, $L\leftrightarrow Q$. By the law of sines, $$\frac{MK}{ML}=\frac{\sin\angle MLK}{\sin\angle MKL}=\frac{\sin\angle AQP}{\sin\angle APQ}=\frac{AP}{AQ}.$$
Powers. Substituting $MK=\tfrac12BQ$ and $ML=\tfrac12CP$ gives $BQ\cdot AQ=CP\cdot AP$. The power of $P$ with respect to the circumcircle is $-PA\cdot PC=OP^2-R^2$, and the power of $Q$ is $-QA\cdot QB=OQ^2-R^2$. These are equal, so $OP=OQ$.
How we checked it: script: 374 tangent configurations found numerically; AP·PC = AQ·QB to 1e-14 in each
P3 Two arithmetic subsequences force the whole sequence to be arithmetic
- Hint 1. The two subsequences have the same common difference $D$. And the gaps $d_n=s_{n+1}-s_n$ are at most $D$.
- Hint 2. Let $m$ and $M$ be the smallest and largest gaps. Summing gaps over a block gives $mM\le D\le mM$. What does equality say about the gaps right after $s_n$?
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: the jump between $s_{s_n}$ and $s_{s_{n+1}}$ is a sum of $d_n$ consecutive gaps. Comparing the smallest and the largest gap pins that sum down, and the first gap of each block is a constant. That forces the smallest and largest gaps to be equal.
Let $d_n=s_{n+1}-s_n\ge1$. Let $s_{s_n}=A+nD$ and $s_{s_n+1}=B+nD'$.
Same difference. Since $s$ is increasing, $s_{s_n}<s_{s_n+1}\le s_{s_{n+1}}$, so $A+nD<B+nD'\le A+(n+1)D$ for every $n$. This forces $D=D'$. So $c:=s_{s_n+1}-s_{s_n}=d_{s_n}$ is the same for every $n$.
Gaps are bounded. For integers, $s_j-s_i\ge j-i$ when $j>i$. So $d_n=s_{n+1}-s_n\le s_{s_{n+1}}-s_{s_n}=D$. Let $m=\min d_n$ and $M=\max d_n$; both are attained.
Squeeze. For each $n$, $$D=s_{s_{n+1}}-s_{s_n}=d_{s_n}+d_{s_n+1}+\dots+d_{s_{n+1}-1},$$ a sum of $d_n$ gaps. So $m\,d_n\le D\le M\,d_n$.
- Take $n$ with $d_n=M$: then $D\ge mM$.
- Take $n$ with $d_n=m$: then $D\le Mm$.
So $D=mM$. For an $n$ with $d_n=M$, the sum of $M$ gaps equals $mM$, so all of them equal $m$; in particular $d_{s_n}=m$. For an $n$ with $d_n=m$, all gaps in the block equal $M$, so $d_{s_n}=M$. But $d_{s_n}=c$ for every $n$, so $m=c=M$.
All gaps are equal, so $(s_n)$ is an arithmetic progression.
How we checked it: logic: each inequality is elementary; the squeeze is exact
P4 Isosceles triangle, two incenters, and a forty-five degree angle
- Hint 1. $K$ lies on the bisector $CI$, and $DK$ bisects the right angle $ADC$, so $\angle IDK=45^\circ$. Reflect $D$ in line $CI$ to a point $D'$ on $CA$.
- Hint 2. Both $E$ and $D'$ are points of line $CA$ that see $IK$ at $45^\circ$. Either they coincide, or $I,K,E,D'$ are concyclic. Use the power of $C$.
Our solution (not official)
Answer: $\angle CAB=60^\circ$ or $90^\circ$
Key idea: the point $D$ already sees the segment $IK$ at $45^\circ$. Reflecting it onto line $CA$ gives a second point there with that property. So either $E$ is that point, or $E$ is on the same circle, and the power of $C$ turns this into one trigonometric equation.
Let $\beta=\angle B=\angle C$, so $\angle A=180^\circ-2\beta$ and $0<\beta<90^\circ$. Let $a=BC$, $b=CA=AB$, and let $I$ be the incenter of $ABC$, where $AD$ and $BE$ meet. Since the triangle is isosceles, $AD\perp BC$ and $CD=\tfrac a2$.
Where $K$ is. $K$ is the incenter of $ADC$. Its bisector from $C$ is the bisector of the whole angle $C$, so $K$ lies on segment $CI$. Its bisector from $D$ halves the right angle $ADC$, so $\angle IDK=\angle KDC=45^\circ$.
Two points on line $CA$. Reflect $D$ in line $CI$ to get $D'$ on ray $CA$, with $CD'=\tfrac a2$. The reflection fixes $I$ and $K$, so $\angle ID'K=45^\circ$. Also $I$ lies on segment $BE$, so $\angle BEK=\angle IEK$.
The points $X$ on the side of line $CI$ containing $A$ with $\angle IXK=45^\circ$ form an arc of a circle through $I$ and $K$. Line $CA$ meets this arc in at most two points, and $D'$ is one of them. So $\angle BEK=45^\circ$ holds exactly when $E=D'$ or when $E\ne D'$ and $I,K,E,D'$ are concyclic. Since $C,K,I$ lie on a line in this order and $E,D'$ lie on one ray from $C$, “concyclic” is the same as $CK\cdot CI=CE\cdot CD'$ (power of $C$).
Lengths. From the right triangle $CDI$: $CI=\dfrac{a}{2\cos(\beta/2)}$. In triangle $CDK$ the angles are $45^\circ$ at $D$, $\tfrac\beta2$ at $C$, and $135^\circ-\tfrac\beta2$ at $K$, so $CK=\dfrac{(a/2)\sin45^\circ}{\sin(135^\circ-\beta/2)}$. By the bisector theorem, $CE=\dfrac{ab}{a+b}$, and $b=\dfrac{a}{2\cos\beta}$, so $CE=\dfrac{a}{1+2\cos\beta}$.
Case $E=D'$. $\dfrac a{1+2\cos\beta}=\dfrac a2$ gives $\cos\beta=\tfrac12$, $\beta=60^\circ$, $\angle A=60^\circ$.
Case concyclic. $CK\cdot CI=CE\cdot CD'$ becomes $$\frac{\sin45^\circ}{2\sin(135^\circ-\beta/2)\cos(\beta/2)}=\frac1{1+2\cos\beta}.$$ Since $2\sin(135^\circ-\tfrac\beta2)\cos\tfrac\beta2=\sin135^\circ+\sin(135^\circ-\beta)$, this is $$\tfrac{\sqrt2}2+\sqrt2\cos\beta=\tfrac{\sqrt2}2+\tfrac{\sqrt2}2(\cos\beta+\sin\beta)\iff\tan\beta=1 .$$ So $\beta=45^\circ$ and $\angle A=90^\circ$. Here $E\ne D'$, since $\cos45^\circ\ne\tfrac12$.
Each case was an equivalence, so $\angle BEK=45^\circ$ exactly when $\angle CAB$ is $60^\circ$ or $90^\circ$.
How we checked it: script: ∠BEK computed for ∠A from 0.5° to 179.5°; it equals 45° only at 60° and 90°
P5 Functions on positive integers that always make triangles
- Hint 1. With $a=1$ the triangle is very thin. Show $f(1)=1$, and then with $b=1$ show $f(f(a))=a$.
- Hint 2. Replacing $a$ by $f(a)$ gives $f(a+b-1)<f(a)+f(b)$. Let $z=f(2)$ and show by induction that $f(j(z-1)+1)=j+1$.
Our solution (not official)
Answer: $f(n)=n$ only
Key idea: thin triangles force $f(1)=1$ and $f(f(a))=a$. Then a subadditive bound and injectivity make $f$ linear, and being its own inverse makes it the identity.
Write $T(a,b)$ for the condition that $a$, $f(b)$, $f(b+f(a)-1)$ are the sides of a nondegenerate triangle.
$f(1)=1$. $T(1,b)$ needs $|f(b)-f(b+f(1)-1)|<1$, so $f(b+f(1)-1)=f(b)$. If $f(1)>1$, then $f$ is periodic, so it takes only finitely many values, all at most some $B$. Then $T(2B,b)$ fails, since $2B\ge f(b)+f(\dots)$. So $f(1)=1$.
Involution. $T(a,1)$: the sides are $a$, $1$, $f(f(a))$, so $|a-f(f(a))|<1$ and $f(f(a))=a$. In particular $f$ is a bijection.
Subadditivity. $T(f(a),b)$ has sides $f(a)$, $f(b)$, $f(b+a-1)$, so $$f(a+b-1)<f(a)+f(b),\quad\text{that is,}\quad f(a+b-1)\le f(a)+f(b)-1 .$$
Linear. Let $z=f(2)$. Then $z\ne1$ (since $f(1)=1$ and $f$ is injective), so $z\ge2$, and $f(z)=f(f(2))=2$. Claim: $f\big(j(z-1)+1\big)=j+1$ for all $j\ge0$. It holds for $j=0,1$. If it holds up to $j$, apply subadditivity with $a=j(z-1)+1$ and $b=z$: $$f\big((j+1)(z-1)+1\big)\le(j+1)+2-1=j+2 .$$ The values $1,\dots,j+1$ are already taken at the smaller points $i(z-1)+1$, $i\le j$, and $f$ is injective, so the value is exactly $j+2$.
Applying $f$ to the claim: $f(j+1)=j(z-1)+1$, that is, $f(n)=(n-1)(z-1)+1$ for all $n$. Then $f(f(n))=(n-1)(z-1)^2+1=n$ forces $(z-1)^2=1$, so $z=2$ and $f(n)=n$.
Check. For $f(n)=n$ the sides are $a$, $b$, $a+b-1$, and every triangle inequality holds strictly.
How we checked it: logic: every step is forced; the identity was checked against the triangle condition for a, b ≤ 200
P6 A grasshopper avoiding a forbidden set of landing points
- Hint 1. Use strong induction on $n$. If the grasshopper has made $j$ jumps safely and has at least $j$ forbidden points behind it, the rest is a smaller case of the same problem.
- Hint 2. Let $A$ be the longest jump and $m$ the smallest forbidden point. If $m<A$, try $A$ first, or a short jump followed by $A$ (count how many such starts a forbidden point can spoil). If $m\ge A$, plan the short jumps by induction against the forbidden points shifted down by $A$, then decide where to slot in $A$.
Our solution (not official)
Key idea: strong induction, always looking at the longest jump $A$. The grasshopper is out of trouble as soon as it has passed at least as many forbidden points as it has used jumps, because what is left is a smaller copy of the problem.
Write $s$ for the total. “The claim for $k$” means: for $k$ distinct jump lengths and at most $k-1$ forbidden points, none equal to the total, a safe order exists. Fewer forbidden points only make it easier, and for $k=1$ there are none.
The reduction. Suppose the grasshopper has made $j$ jumps safely and stands at $p\notin M$. The other $n-j$ jumps take it from $p$ to $s$, and only the points of $M$ strictly between $p$ and $s$ matter. If there are at most $n-j-1$ of them, the claim for $n-j$ (with everything shifted by $p$) finishes the walk. This happens whenever at least $j$ points of $M$ lie below $p$.
Let $A$ be the largest jump and $m$ the smallest point of $M$ (if $M$ is empty there is nothing to do). All other jumps are shorter than $A$.
Case 1: $m<A$ and $A\notin M$. Jump $A$ first. The point $m$ is behind, so the reduction works with $j=1$.
Case 2: $m<A$ and $A\in M$. For each of the $n-1$ shorter jumps $a$, look at the start “jump $a$, then jump $A$”. It lands on $a$ and on $a+A$. Call it spoiled if one of these is in $M$. A point $x\in M$ other than $A$ spoils at most one start: if $x<A$ it can equal only one $a$, and if $x>A$ it can equal only one $a+A$. So at most $n-2$ starts are spoiled, and one start is safe. After it the grasshopper stands at $a+A$, with the two points $m$ and $A$ of $M$ behind it, after two jumps. The reduction works with $j=2$.
Case 3: $m\ge A$. Now every point of $M$ is at least $A$. Apply the claim to the $n-1$ shorter jumps (total $s-A$) with the forbidden set $$F=\{x-A:\ x\in M,\ x\ne m\}.$$ These are $n-2$ positive integers, and $s-A\notin F$ because $s\notin M$. We get an order of the short jumps whose landing points $0=q_0<q_1<\dots<q_{n-1}=s-A$ satisfy $q_k\notin F$ for $k\ge1$.
- If $m-A$ is not one of the $q_k$: jump $A$ first, then follow this order. The landing points are $q_k+A$. For $k\ge1$ they miss $M\setminus\{m\}$ because $q_k\notin F$; for $k=0$ the point $A$ could only be in $M$ if $A=m$. None equals $m$, by assumption.
- If $m-A=q_i$: then $i\le n-2$, because $q_{n-1}+A=s\ne m$. Follow the order up to $q_{i+1}$, then jump $A$, then finish the order. The early landing points are at most $q_{i+1}=q_i+(\text{a jump shorter than }A)<m$, so they miss $M$. The later ones are $q_k+A$ with $k\ge i+1$: they miss $M\setminus\{m\}$ as before, and miss $m$ because $q_k\ne q_i$.
The three cases cover everything, so the induction is complete.
How we checked it: script: the proof coded as a recursive algorithm; its order was checked on every instance with n ≤ 4 and jumps ≤ 8 (58,892 cases) and on 200,000 random instances with n ≤ 8