Calculus 1Limits

The Squeeze Theorem

Trap a function between two with the same limit.

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Some limits resist every algebra trick because part of the function never settles down. Think of $\sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)$, which swings between $-1$ and $1$ infinitely often near 0. The Limit Laws cannot handle it, but a sandwich can.

Key idea

Squeeze theorem. If $g(x) \le f(x) \le h(x)$ for all $x$ near $a$ (except possibly at $a$), and $\lim_{x \to a} g(x) = \lim_{x \to a} h(x) = L$, then $\lim_{x \to a} f(x) = L$.

Why it works

Pick any tolerance around $L$. Close enough to $a$, the lower function $g$ is inside that tolerance, and so is the upper function $h$. Since $f(x)$ sits between them, it has no room to escape: it is inside the tolerance too. That is exactly what $\lim f = L$ means.
$x^2\sin(1/x)$ wiggles forever, but it is trapped between $-x^2$ and $x^2$, which both pinch to 0.

Worked example: Taming an oscillation

Find $\displaystyle\lim_{x \to 0} x^2 \sin\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)$.
  1. The product law fails: $\sin(1/x)$ has no limit at 0.
  2. But $-1 \le \sin(1/x) \le 1$. Multiply by $x^2 \ge 0$: $-x^2 \le x^2\sin(1/x) \le x^2$.
  3. Both $-x^2$ and $x^2$ tend to 0.
  4. By the squeeze theorem the limit is 0.

Answer: $0$

Worked example: Polynomial bounds

For all $x$ near 1, $4x - 3 \le f(x) \le x^2 + 2x - 2$. Find $\lim_{x \to 1} f(x)$.
  1. Lower bound: $4(1) - 3 = 1$.
  2. Upper bound: $1 + 2 - 2 = 1$.
  3. The bounds agree, so $f$ is squeezed to 1.

Answer: $1$

Worked example: At infinity

Find $\displaystyle\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{3x + \cos x}{x}$.
  1. Split: $\frac{3x}{x} + \frac{\cos x}{x} = 3 + \frac{\cos x}{x}$.
  2. For $x > 0$: $-\frac{1}{x} \le \frac{\cos x}{x} \le \frac{1}{x}$, and both bounds tend to 0.
  3. So $\frac{\cos x}{x} \to 0$ and the limit is $3 + 0$.

Answer: $3$

Where do the bounds come from?

The most common pattern is bounded times something that goes to 0. Sine and cosine always lie between $-1$ and $1$, so a product like $(x - a)^2\cos(\text{anything})$ is trapped between $-(x - a)^2$ and $(x - a)^2$. More generally, if $\lvert f(x) \rvert \le M$ and $g(x) \to 0$, then $-M\lvert g(x) \rvert \le f(x)g(x) \le M\lvert g(x) \rvert$, so $f(x)g(x) \to 0$. You will use this squeeze again in the next lesson to prove the most important trigonometric limit.

Common mistake

Using the product law on $x^2 \cdot \sin(1/x)$ and writing $0 \cdot (\text{something})$ when the second factor has no limit. The law needs both limits to exist. Also make sure your two bounds really meet: bounds with different limits squeeze nothing. Check: plug $x = 0.01$ into both bounds; they should be nearly equal.

Practice

Pass with 3 right answers, the last 2 in a row. Each right answer earns 2 XP.

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Sources and further reading

  • OpenStax Calculus Volume 1, 2.3 The Limit Laws
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