The Bill of Rights begins "Congress shall make no law." In 1791 it limited only the national government. How did it come to limit states and cities too? Through the Fourteenth Amendment (1868), which says no state shall "deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law."
| Year | Case | What it applied to the states |
|---|---|---|
| 1833 | Barron v. Baltimore | Nothing: the Bill of Rights limits only the federal government |
| 1925 | Gitlow v. New York | The Court assumed freedom of speech and press bind the states (but upheld Gitlow's conviction) |
| 1961 | Mapp v. Ohio | The exclusionary rule for unlawful searches (Fourth Amendment) |
| 1963 | Gideon v. Wainwright | A lawyer for poor defendants charged with felonies (Sixth) |
| 1964 | Malloy v. Hogan | The privilege against self-incrimination (Fifth) |
| 1968 | Duncan v. Louisiana | Jury trial in serious criminal cases (Sixth) |
| 2010 | McDonald v. Chicago | The right to keep and bear arms (Second) |
| 2019 | Timbs v. Indiana | The ban on excessive fines (Eighth) |
Why it works
Key idea
Worked example: Before or after?
- Barron v. Baltimore (1833) held the Bill of Rights did not limit states.
- The Fourteenth Amendment did not exist until 1868.
Answer: No; in 1850 the Bill of Rights did not bind the states.
Worked example: Which clause carries the right?
- The First Amendment says "Congress shall make no law."
- Cities are part of states, which are bound through the Fourteenth Amendment's Due Process Clause (since Gitlow).
Answer: The Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
Common mistake